ProgrammesCruciblePricingScholarshipBlogDiagnostic TestApplyStudent Login
Current affairs · Legal

Legal current affairs: judgments, amendments, notifications

New judgments, statutory amendments and official notifications, each in a short post of about two hundred words with a note on how CLAT could use it. Every post links to the judgment, Bill or notification it is based on, and posts are drawn from government sources: the Supreme Court, Parliament, the Gazette, PIB, RBI and SEBI. Last updated 24 September 2026.

Recognising a headline is not the same as answering a passage-based question on it. The free Diagnostic Test includes a full Current Affairs and GK section.

Take the free Diagnostic Test →

Judgments

24 September 2026

Supreme Court issues nationwide safeguards against misuse of POCSO complaints in custody battles

In a custody dispute between a father ('R') and mother ('E'), the Supreme Court found that a POCSO Act complaint filed by the mother against the father, alleging sexual assault of their child, was engineered to regain custody after the Court had earlier confirmed custody with the father. A CBI investigation found the case not maintainable, and the Court (J.B. Pardiwala and K.V. Viswanathan, JJ., 24 September 2026) quashed the FIR, restored legal custody to the father, and directed a Family Court-supervised, expert-assisted process — involving CBI officers and NIMHANS child psychiatry and psychology faculty — to reintegrate the child with the father. Beyond the case, the Court laid down safeguards to prevent misuse of the POCSO Act in matrimonial litigation. Where a POCSO offence is alleged against a parent or a family member living with the child, and a matrimonial dispute exists between the parents, police must verify the dispute at the time of the complaint and avoid hasty arrest; courts deciding bail or remand must examine whether the arrest decision accounted for the strained relationship; and District Child Protection Units must maintain updated panels of child psychiatry and psychology experts under the POCSO Rules, 2020, to assist before coercive action is taken. The Court also endorsed the Kerala High Court's view that mere registration of a POCSO case should not defeat a parent's custody claim. The judgment is to be circulated to every High Court and police station in the country.

Why it matters for CLAT. Tests the interface between the POCSO Act's protective, victim-centric design and due-process safeguards against arrest, echoing the Arnesh Kumar line of cases on Section 498A IPC — a classic CLAT theme of balancing child protection with the risk of criminal law being weaponised in matrimonial disputes.

Quick check: Under the safeguards laid down by the Supreme Court in this case, when do special precautions against hasty arrest apply to a POCSO complaint?
  1. Whenever the accused is a first-time offender
  2. When the offence is alleged against a parent or co-resident family member, and a matrimonial dispute exists between the child's parents
  3. Only where the child victim is below the age of seven
  4. Whenever the complaint is filed more than one year after the alleged offence

Answer: B. The Court held the safeguards apply only where two threshold conditions are met together: the accused is a parent or a family member living under the same roof as the child, and a matrimonial dispute exists between the parents — a fact the police must verify on receiving the complaint.

Read the source: Supreme Court of India: judgment in 'R' v. 'E' & Ors., 2026 INSC 1049 (24 September 2026)

23 September 2026

Split Supreme Court bench sends Election Commissioners Appointment Act challenge to larger bench

A batch of writ petitions under Article 32 — led by Dr. Jaya Thakur and including the Association for Democratic Reforms and the People's Union for Civil Liberties — challenge Sections 6, 7 and 8(2) of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 as ultra vires Articles 14 and 324. Section 7 fixes the Selection Committee for the CEC and Election Commissioners as the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister — a composition enacted after the Constitution Bench in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) 6 SCC 161 had held that the Election Commission must be insulated from exclusive executive control in appointments. A two-judge bench (Dipankar Datta and Satish Chandra Sharma, JJ.) heard the petitions over five days on whether the challenge required reference to a Constitution Bench under Article 145(3). The judges split: Datta, J. held that only the settled Anoop Baranwal principle needed to be applied to the 2023 Act, so no reference was necessary; Sharma, J. held that the vires of the Act called for independent examination by five judges. Rather than referring this narrower disagreement to a three-judge bench and causing further delay, both judges jointly directed that the papers be placed before the Chief Justice of India to consider constituting a Constitution Bench to decide the validity of Sections 6, 7 and 8 of the 2023 Act.

Why it matters for CLAT. Builds directly on Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) on the independence of the Election Commission from executive control, and illustrates the Article 145(3) procedure for referring a constitutional question to a larger Bench.

Quick check: In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), what did the Supreme Court hold about the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners?
  1. That the President can remove an Election Commissioner without following the procedure for removing the CEC
  2. That such appointments are purely an executive function immune from judicial review
  3. That only sitting High Court judges are eligible for appointment as Election Commissioners
  4. That the Election Commission must be insulated from exclusive executive control in the matter of such appointments

Answer: D. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) 6 SCC 161 held that the ECI must be insulated from exclusive executive control in appointments — the very principle the petitioners in this case say Section 7 of the 2023 Act violates by giving the executive a majority on the Selection Committee.

Read the source: Supreme Court of India: judgment in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India, W.P.(C) No. 14/2024, 2026 INSC 1040 (23 September 2026)

23 September 2026

Supreme Court: holding arbitration hearings at a place does not make it the 'seat' of arbitration

Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd had a works contract with GSCO Infrastructure Pvt Ltd that contained no arbitration clause. After disputes arose, the Orissa High Court, in a writ petition, referred the matter to a sole arbitrator under Section 11(6) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 without specifying any seat or venue; the arbitral proceedings were then conducted at Cuttack, where the High Court sits, apparently for the arbitrator's convenience. After an award was passed in GSCO's favour, Mahanadi Coalfields filed petitions under Section 34 of the Act to set the award aside before the District Judge, Sundargarh — the district where the underlying works were performed. The High Court held these petitions were not maintainable, reasoning that Cuttack, where the hearings were held, was the 'seat' of arbitration, so only courts there had supervisory jurisdiction, and that the petitions were also time-barred. The Supreme Court (Sanjay Kumar and Sanjeev Sachdeva, JJ.) set this aside. It reiterated the distinction between 'seat' — which fixes the courts with supervisory jurisdiction — and 'venue', which is merely the physical location of hearings, relying on BALCO, Indus Mobile Distribution and BGS SGS Soma JV. Since neither the parties nor the referral order had designated Cuttack as the seat, conducting hearings there did not confer jurisdiction on its courts. Absent an express seat, any court within the High Court's territorial jurisdiction competent to entertain a Section 34 petition — here, the District Judge, Sundargarh — could hear it. The petitions were restored.

Why it matters for CLAT. Tests the 'seat' versus 'venue' distinction in arbitration law — a frequently examined point after BALCO — and how it determines which court has supervisory jurisdiction under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to set aside an award.

Quick check: Under the law reiterated in this judgment, what is the key legal significance of the 'seat' of arbitration, as distinct from its 'venue'?
  1. The seat determines which court exercises supervisory jurisdiction over the arbitration, while the venue is merely the physical place where hearings are held
  2. The seat determines the language of the arbitral proceedings
  3. The venue, and not the seat, determines which court can entertain a Section 34 petition
  4. The seat and venue are legally interchangeable terms with no distinct consequence

Answer: A. Relying on BALCO, Indus Mobile Distribution and BGS SGS Soma JV, the Court held that the 'seat' fixes supervisory jurisdiction over the arbitration, whereas the 'venue' is only the physical location of hearings and does not, by itself, confer jurisdiction on the courts there.

Read the source: Supreme Court of India: judgment in Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. v. GSCO (Gurmeet Singh and Company) Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd., 2026 INSC 1038 (23 September 2026)

Amendments

Nothing in this category yet.

Notifications

24 September 2026

RBI tells banks to monitor accounts linked to newly banned Shahzad Bhatti Network

The Reserve Bank of India, in a circular dated 24 September 2026 (RBI/2026-2027/270), has directed banks and other regulated entities to implement a Ministry of Home Affairs notification (S.O. 5080(E), dated 16 September 2026) that designates the "Shahzad Bhatti Network (SBN)" as a terrorist organisation. The designation is made under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 35 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, and the organisation now stands listed in the First Schedule to the Act alongside other banned outfits. The RBI circular is addressed to commercial banks, small finance banks, payment banks, urban and rural co-operative banks, regional rural banks, local area banks, non-banking financial companies, asset reconstruction companies and all-India financial institutions. It requires these regulated entities to strictly follow the procedure set out in the Central Government's UAPA Order of 2 February 2021: they must check whether any of their accounts match individuals or organisations named in the UAPA schedules, and where a match is found, report the account details to the Financial Intelligence Unit-India and separately inform the Ministry of Home Affairs. The practical effect is that an organisation can be branded "terrorist" through an executive notification under Section 35, without a prior criminal conviction, and the regulated financial system is then mobilised to detect, freeze awareness of, and report on its dealings.

Why it matters for CLAT. Section 35 UAPA lets the Central Government designate an organisation "terrorist" by executive notification alone, simply by adding it to the First Schedule — a recurring CLAT theme on the line between preventive administrative action and the due-process protections that attach to a criminal conviction.

Quick check: Under which provision of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 can the Central Government designate an organisation as a "terrorist organisation"?
  1. Section 3, by notifying it in the Official Gazette as an "unlawful association"
  2. Section 35(1)(a), by adding it to the First Schedule
  3. Section 15, on a judicial finding that it committed a "terrorist act"
  4. Section 43D, at the stage of framing charges

Answer: B. Section 35(1)(a) UAPA empowers the Central Government to add an organisation to the First Schedule, thereby designating it a terrorist organisation. This is an executive/administrative act, distinct from a judicial finding of guilt under substantive offence provisions such as Section 15.

Read the source: Reserve Bank of India: notification on designation of terrorist organisation under Section 35(1)(a), UAPA 1967 (24 September 2026)

24 September 2026

SEBI board approves rewritten settlement rules and new portfolio manager regulations

The SEBI Board, at its 215th meeting held in Mumbai on 24 September 2026, approved a wide set of regulatory changes, the most significant being two full replacements of existing regulations. First, the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2026 will replace the 2020 Regulations, cutting the regulatory text from 70 to 33 pages and the number of provisos from 47 to 4, while removing most "notwithstanding" clauses. The rewritten regulations allow portfolio managers to invest client money in IPOs and primary market debt, permit up to 10% of a client's assets under management in unlisted investment-grade debt, and create two new categories of intermediary: the Portfolio Managers Route for Investing in Mutual Funds (PRIM), and Independent Fund Managers (IFMs), who operate under a registered portfolio manager's supervision and full liability. Second, the Board approved the SEBI (Settlement of Administrative and Civil Proceedings) Regulations, 2026, replacing the Settlement Proceedings Regulations, 2018. These introduce a "settlement notice" that SEBI must ordinarily issue before a show-cause notice, giving an entity 60 days to apply for settlement; extend the period to apply for settlement after a show-cause notice from 60 to 90 days; add a fast-track route for settlement amounts up to ₹10 lakh; and prescribe a new formula for computing the settlement amount, keeping it separate from disgorgement of wrongful gains. Both sets of regulations take effect once formally notified.

Why it matters for CLAT. Tests two administrative-law staples: how subordinate legislation (SEBI regulations) can wholly supersede an earlier set of regulations "in supersession of" them, and how a defined pre- and post-show-cause notice period fits the principles of natural justice in quasi-judicial settlement proceedings.

Quick check: Under SEBI's new Settlement Regulations, 2026, what must SEBI ordinarily do before issuing a show-cause notice in an enforcement matter?
  1. Publish the proposed penalty in the Official Gazette for public comment
  2. Refer the matter compulsorily to the Securities Appellate Tribunal
  3. Issue a "settlement notice" giving the entity 60 days to apply for settlement
  4. Obtain the prior approval of the Ministry of Finance

Answer: C. The SEBI (Settlement of Administrative and Civil Proceedings) Regulations, 2026 require SEBI, except where prosecution or an interim order is contemplated, to issue a settlement notice before the show-cause notice, giving the noticee 60 days to apply for settlement — a pre-litigation opportunity new to this framework.

Read the source: SEBI: "Key decisions taken in the SEBI Board Meeting dated 24th September, 2026", PR No. 59/2026

Frequently asked questions

Where do these posts come from?

Each item starts from an official listing: the Supreme Court’s latest judgments, RBI and SEBI notifications, PIB releases, and PRS Legislative Research’s Bill Track. A short summary is written from the source document itself, and the source is linked on every post.

Are the summaries checked?

A post based only on government sources is published automatically once it passes format and source checks. Anything that relies on a non-government source waits for a person to review it. If you spot an error, the source link is the authority — tell us and we will correct the post.

How should I use this for CLAT?

Read the “Why it matters” line first. CLAT asks about legal developments through passages, so what helps is knowing what changed and why, not memorising case numbers.

Check whether your GK reading is actually sticking

Recognising a headline is not the same as answering a passage-based question on it. The free Diagnostic Test includes a full Current Affairs and GK section.

Take the free Diagnostic Test →